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Home/ Questions/Q 1100493
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 17, 20262026-05-17T00:53:21+00:00 2026-05-17T00:53:21+00:00

a) Compiles Func<string, bool> f1 = (Func<object, bool>)null; b) Not Func<int, bool> f2 =

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a) Compiles

        Func<string, bool> f1 = (Func<object, bool>)null;

b) Not

        Func<int, bool> f2 = (Func<object, bool>)null;

Why value types are special here? Is contravariance broken with value types?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-17T00:53:21+00:00Added an answer on May 17, 2026 at 12:53 am

    Generic variance only works with reference types, yes. (This is so that the CLR knows that everything’s still just a reference, so the JITted code is still the same… the bits involved in a reference are the same whatever type you’re talking about, whereas treating int as object requires a boxing conversion. Basically you can keep representational identity with reference types).

    From the C# 4 spec, section 13.1.3.2:

    A type T<A1, …, An> is variance-convertible to a type T<B1, …, Bn> if T is either an interface or a delegate type declared with the variant type parameters T<X1, …, Xn>, and for each variant type parameter Xi one of the following holds:

    • Xi is covariant and an implicit reference or identity conversion exists from Ai to Bi
    • Xi is contravariant and an implicit reference or identity conversion exists from Bi to Ai
    • Xi is invariant and an identity conversion exists from Ai to Bi

    It’s the “implicit reference conversion” rather than just “implicit conversion” bit which is a problem for value types.

    For much more detail around generic variance, see Eric Lippert’s blog series on the topic.

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