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Home/ Questions/Q 8279301
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 8, 20262026-06-08T09:17:25+00:00 2026-06-08T09:17:25+00:00

Does (=> (f g)) always mean the same thing as (or (not f) g))

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Does

(=> (f g))

always mean the same thing as

(or (not f) g))

?

The two expressions behave differently in my model. While using => gives me UNSAT, using the other variant does not yield any result (timeout). I would be content just having a list of operators and their meanings. I am aware of the SMTLIB standard, but the documents don’t explicitly talk about the meanings of operators. Specifically ‘=>‘ seems to double as an alias for the ‘ite‘ (if_then_else) operator if used in a ternary expression and I’m quite confused about that.

I set the AUFLIA logic, if that’s relevant.

I’m looking for a simple yes or no answer first. And a proper documentation about SMT2 (maybe a book) second.

I have this rather large model generated from Daniel Jackson’s marksweep model for alloy4 of those of you who are willing to see for yourself.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-08T09:17:26+00:00Added an answer on June 8, 2026 at 9:17 am

    Your expressions are incorrect/unwellformed.

    => indeed means ‘implies’. In other words, (=> f g) is equivalent to (or (not f) g).

    If in doubt, you could prove it using Z3. The below query is unsat:

    (declare-const p Bool)
    (declare-const q Bool)
    
    (define-fun conjecture () Bool
        (= (=> p q) 
           (or (not p) q)))
    
    (assert (not conjecture))
    (check-sat)
    
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