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Home/ Questions/Q 8350849
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 9, 20262026-06-09T08:26:51+00:00 2026-06-09T08:26:51+00:00

Recently, I’ve watched some videos about C# async bugs and got into discussions with

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Recently, I’ve watched some videos about C# async bugs and got into discussions with friends.

Is it correct to say that a programming language has a bug ?
or can you only say that a compiler has a bug ?

what is the difference between both ?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-09T08:26:53+00:00Added an answer on June 9, 2026 at 8:26 am

    The language has a design flaw if it’s not designed well for whatever reason (e.g. the ability to call static methods via an expression of the declaring type in Java, IMO).

    The language has a bug (IMO) if the specification is contradictory or doesn’t express what the author intended it to express. (I believe there are some bugs in the C# language specification around type inference, for example.)

    The compiler has a bug if it fails to implement the specification correctly.

    EDIT: I’ve found an example of a spec bug which is rather simpler than type inference ones…

    In the C# 4 spec, section 7.3.1 states: “Except for the assignment operators, all binary operators are left-associative”.

    Section 7.13 states: “The null coalescing operator is right-associative”

    As the null coalescing operator is a non-assignment binary operator, this is a contradiction and thus (IMO) a bug. (It was also noted in this Stack Overflow question.)

    The null coalescing operator also provides an example of a compiler bug which I discovered while answering that question…

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