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Home/ Questions/Q 5840931
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 22, 20262026-05-22T11:49:15+00:00 2026-05-22T11:49:15+00:00

well why would, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int afunction () {return 0;}; int

  • 0

well why would,

#include <iostream>

using namespace std;

int afunction () {return 0;};

int anotherfunction () {return 0;};

int main ()
{
    cout << &afunction << endl;
}

give this,

1

  1. why is every functions address true?
  2. and how then can a function pointer work if all functions share (so it seems) the same addresss?
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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-22T11:49:17+00:00Added an answer on May 22, 2026 at 11:49 am

    The function address isn’t “true”. There is no overload for an ostream that accepts an arbitrary function pointer. But there is one for a boolean, and function pointers are implicitly convertable to bool. So the compiler converts afunction from whatever its value actually is to true or false. Since you can’t have a function at address 0, the value printed is always true, which cout displays as 1.

    This illustrates why implicit conversions are usually frowned upon. If the conversion to bool were explicit, you would have had a compile error instead of silently doing the wrong thing.

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