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Home/ Questions/Q 8410505
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 10, 20262026-06-10T00:11:39+00:00 2026-06-10T00:11:39+00:00

(=<<) :: (a -> m b) -> m a -> m b id ::

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(=<<) :: (a -> m b) -> m a -> m b
id :: a -> a
join :: m (m a) -> m a

So shouldn’t,

(=<<) id

give an error because,

id :: a -> a

and not,

id :: a -> m a

Doesn’t (=<<) expect,

(something -> m anything)

as its first argument?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-10T00:11:41+00:00Added an answer on June 10, 2026 at 12:11 am

    m a' -> m a' is also a kind of a -> a, so we can have

          id ::  m a' -> m a'                        -- a = m a'
       (=<<) :: (m a' -> m a') -> m (m a') -> m a'   -- a = m a', b = a'
    
    (=<<) id ::                   m (m a') -> m a'
    
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