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Home/ Questions/Q 7596853
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 30, 20262026-05-30T22:01:20+00:00 2026-05-30T22:01:20+00:00

bit of a silly question perhaps. But I want to understand why the syntax

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bit of a silly question perhaps.

But I want to understand why the syntax on the self-executing function and the callback it has is so different to all the other JS syntax..

(function () {
})()

I just need to understand why its valid to encapsulate it with () I wouldn’t have guessed that to be valid, and then the extra () afterwards for the callback, (which just sits directly after it, I also wouldn’t have expected that to be valid.

Is anyone able to explain this to me?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-30T22:01:20+00:00Added an answer on May 30, 2026 at 10:01 pm

    The function (...) {...} part is a function expression, that is, an expression that represents a function. The only reason it has to be wrapped in parentheses in this case is that if the keyword function is the very first thing in a statement, then the statement is assumed to be a function statement, that is, a function declaration. (Actually, it doesn’t necessarily have to be wrapped in parentheses; it also works to prefix it with a +, or in general to put any sort of token before function that prevents the function-statement interpretation.)

    The () part after the function expression is the same as the normal () for calling a function. This:

    (function (...) {...})(...);
    

    is (aside from the temporary variable) the same as this:

    var f = function (...) {...};
    f();
    

    which is equivalent to this:

    function f(...) {...};
    f();
    
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