Question

Can anyone explain why I can chain a native JavaScript function to a jQuery function like so:

$('#search').val().replace("00:00:00", "")

In this case, replace is the native JavaScript function.

http://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_replace.asp

Thanks

Answer 1

In this case val() must be returning a string value and hence replace works as expected. It’s no different than calling a function which returns a string and chaining that

function example() {
  return "foo";
}

example().replace("00:00:00", "");