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Home/ Questions/Q 8042039
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 5, 20262026-06-05T04:26:10+00:00 2026-06-05T04:26:10+00:00

Can anyone explain why isn’t this possible (at least in .Net 2.0): public class

  • 0

Can anyone explain why isn’t this possible (at least in .Net 2.0):

public class A<T>
{
    public void Method<U>() where U : T
    {
        ...
    }
}

...

A<K> obj = new A<K>();
obj.Method<J>();

with K being the superclass of J

EDIT

I’ve tried to simplify the problem in order to make the question more legible, but I’ve clearly overdo that. Sorry!

My problem is a little more specific I guess. This is my code (based on this):

public class Container<T>
{
    private static class PerType<U> where U : T
    {
        public static U item;
    }

    public U Get<U>() where U : T
    {
        return PerType<U>.item;
    }

    public void Set<U>(U newItem) where U : T
    {
        PerType<U>.item = newItem;
    }
}

and I’m getting this error:

Container.cs(13,24): error CS0305: Using the generic type
Container<T>.PerType<U>' requires2′ type argument(s)

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-05T04:26:11+00:00Added an answer on June 5, 2026 at 4:26 am

    Actually it is possible. This code compiles and runs just fine:

    public class A<T>
    {
        public void Act<U>() where U : T
        {
            Console.Write("a");
        }
    }
    
    static void Main(string[] args)
    {
      A<IEnumerable> a = new A<IEnumerable>();
      a.Act<List<int>>();
    }
    

    What is not possible is using covariance / contravariance in generics, as explained here:

    IEnumerable<Derived> d = new List<Derived>();
    IEnumerable<Base> b = d;
    
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