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Home/ Questions/Q 8425689
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 10, 20262026-06-10T04:20:29+00:00 2026-06-10T04:20:29+00:00

Could you explain why the following code doesn’t compile? An obvious workaround is to

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Could you explain why the following code doesn’t compile? An obvious workaround is to add a 1-argument overload of Apply, is there a simpler one?

template <typename T>
T Identity(const T& i_val)
  {
  return i_val;
  }

template <typename Val, typename Fn>
Val Apply(const Val& v, Fn fn = Identity<Val>)
  {
  return fn(v);
  }

int main() {
  Apply(42);              // error: no matching function for call to 'Apply(int)'
  Apply(42, Identity<int>); // OK
  return 0;
}
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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-10T04:20:31+00:00Added an answer on June 10, 2026 at 4:20 am

    Looking up the function to call consists of:
    1. creating the set of candidates, which includes template argument deduction
    2. determining the best overload

    If I understand the standard correctly, only actual function arguments (i.e., not the default ones) take part in deducing the template arguments. Therefore from the argument 42, the only thing the compiler can infer is that Val = int. The overload does not enter the candidate set and the default argument is never looked at.

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