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Home/ Questions/Q 806147
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 15, 20262026-05-15T00:11:54+00:00 2026-05-15T00:11:54+00:00

Given a function prototype, and a type definition: int my_function(unsigned short x); typedef unsigned

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Given a function prototype, and a type definition:

int my_function(unsigned short x);
typedef unsigned short blatherskite;

Is the following situation defined by standard:

int main(int argc, char** argv) {
  int result;
  blatherskite b;

  b=3;
  result = my_function(b);
}

Do I get type coercion predictably via the function prototype?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-15T00:11:55+00:00Added an answer on May 15, 2026 at 12:11 am

    If your question is really about whether the types of the argument and the parameter match, then the answer is yes. typedef does not introduce a new type, it only creates alias for an existing one. Variable b has type unsigned int, just like the parameter, even though b is declared using typedef-name blatherskite.

    Your example is not very good for demonstrating that though. All integral types are convertible to each other in C++, so (ignoring range issues) the code would have defined behavior even if blatherskite designated a different type (a new type). But it doesn’t. So this is also perfectly valid

    void foo(unsigned int* p);
    ...
    blatherskite *pb = 0;
    foo(pb); // <- still valid
    
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