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Asked: May 10, 20262026-05-10T14:35:45+00:00 2026-05-10T14:35:45+00:00

Given the following example, why do I have to explicitly use the statement b->A::DoSomething()

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Given the following example, why do I have to explicitly use the statement b->A::DoSomething() rather than just b->DoSomething()?

Shouldn’t the compiler’s overload resolution figure out which method I’m talking about?

I’m using Microsoft VS 2005. (Note: using virtual doesn’t help in this case.)

class A {   public:     int DoSomething() {return 0;}; };  class B : public A {   public:     int DoSomething(int x) {return 1;}; };  int main() {   B* b = new B();   b->A::DoSomething();    //Why this?   //b->DoSomething();    //Why not this? (Gives compiler error.)   delete b;   return 0; } 
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  1. 2026-05-10T14:35:46+00:00Added an answer on May 10, 2026 at 2:35 pm

    The two “overloads” aren’t in the same scope. By default, the compiler only considers the smallest possible name scope until it finds a name match. Argument matching is done afterwards. In your case this means that the compiler sees B::DoSomething. It then tries to match the argument list, which fails.

    One solution would be to pull down the overload from A into B‘s scope:

    class B : public A { public:     using A::DoSomething;     // … } 
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