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Home/ Questions/Q 7081875
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 28, 20262026-05-28T06:58:33+00:00 2026-05-28T06:58:33+00:00

I am doing some work for a company that has SQL Server 2008. One

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I am doing some work for a company that has SQL Server 2008. One of their stored procedures references (or appears to reference) a column that does not exist, and yet there is no error.

The query has this structure:

         select col1, col2 from FOO
         where col3 in
         (select id from BAZ where datecreated between @date1 and @date2)

** BAZ does not contain a column called [datecreated] but FOO does.** If I change the query to qualify the column name, as follows, there IS an error:

        select col1, col2 from FOO
         where b in
         (select id from BAZ where BAZ.datecreated between @date1 and @date2)

If this is the by-design behavior, could someone please point me to the relevant documentation? Thanks

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-28T06:58:34+00:00Added an answer on May 28, 2026 at 6:58 am

    It is by design.

    It is perfectly valid to access a column from the outer query in a correlated sub query. This might be desired semantics in some cases.

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