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Home/ Questions/Q 7189709
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 28, 20262026-05-28T19:21:34+00:00 2026-05-28T19:21:34+00:00

I am trying to prove something, and I’m not sure if my math is

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I am trying to prove something, and I’m not sure if my math is correct. Simplified down, let’s say we have:

a < b < c

d < e < f

If all of these are positive values, is it legal to do:

a*d < b*e < c*f

If so, is there a property that I can cite?

This is a homework problem, so I’m looking for pointers in the right direction if no such property exists, rather than an outright answer.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-28T19:21:35+00:00Added an answer on May 28, 2026 at 7:21 pm

    Yes, it’s legal. Suppose a < b < c and d < e < f. Multiplying the inequality a < b by positive d gives a*d < b*d. Since we know that d < e, we have a*d < b*d < b*e. Similarly, since b < c and e < f, we get a*d < b*e < c*e < c*f.

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