I am trying to prove something, and I’m not sure if my math is correct. Simplified down, let’s say we have:
a < b < c
d < e < f
If all of these are positive values, is it legal to do:
a*d < b*e < c*f
If so, is there a property that I can cite?
This is a homework problem, so I’m looking for pointers in the right direction if no such property exists, rather than an outright answer.
Yes, it’s legal. Suppose
a < b < candd < e < f. Multiplying the inequalitya < bby positivedgivesa*d < b*d. Since we know thatd < e, we havea*d < b*d < b*e. Similarly, sinceb < cande < f, we geta*d < b*e < c*e < c*f.