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I have a hypothetical database I want to normalize.
I want to make it to all the Normal Forms.
Basically, my question is: Can a database be in 2NF without being in 1NF?
For example:
No, but the reason is that one of the pre-requisites to be in 2NF is to be in 1NF.
If that detail didn’t exist, it could because 1NF relates to each attribute and 2NF relates to keys.