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Home/ Questions/Q 3211178
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 17, 20262026-05-17T14:41:48+00:00 2026-05-17T14:41:48+00:00

I have a SQL Server 2008 database where all access to the underlying tables

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I have a SQL Server 2008 database where all access to the underlying tables is done through stored procedures. Some stored procedures simply SELECT records from the tables while others UPDATE, INSERT, and DELETE.

If a stored procedure UPDATES a table does the user executing the stored procedure also need UPDATE permissions to the affected tables or is the fact that they have EXECUTE permissions to the stored procedure enough?

Basically I am wondering if giving the user EXECUTE permissions to the stored procedures is enough or do I need to give them SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT permissions to the tables in order for the stored procedures to work. Thank you.

[EDIT] In most of my stored procedures it does indeed appear that EXECUTE is enough. However, I did find that in stored procedures where “Execute sp_Executesql” was used that EXECUTE was not enough. The tables involved needed to have permissions for the actions being performed within “sp_Executesql”.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-17T14:41:49+00:00Added an answer on May 17, 2026 at 2:41 pm

    Execute permissions on the stored procedure is sufficient.

    CREATE TABLE dbo.Temp(n int)
    
    GO
    DENY INSERT ON dbo.Temp TO <your role>
    GO
    CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.SPTemp(@Int int)
    AS
    
    INSERT dbo.Temp
    SELECT  @Int 
    
    GO
    
    GRANT EXEC ON dbo.SPTemp TO <your role>
    
    GO
    

    Then the (non-db_owner) user will have the following rights:

    EXEC dbo.SPTemp 10
    GO
    
    INSERT dbo.Temp --INSERT permission was denied on the object 'Temp'
    SELECT  10
    

    However, if there is dynamic SQL inside dbo.SPTemp that attempts to insert into dbo.Temp then that will fail. In this case direct permission on the table will need to be granted.

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