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Home/ Questions/Q 6155063
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 23, 20262026-05-23T20:22:15+00:00 2026-05-23T20:22:15+00:00

I have an abstract class: class A { public: bool loaded_; virtual int load()

  • 0

I have an abstract class:

class A
{
  public:
  bool loaded_;
  virtual int load() = 0;
}

And several derived classes :

class B:public A
{
  public:
  int load();
  static B& instance();
}  

class C:public A
{
  public:
  int load();
  static C& instance();
}  

The fact is that the code inside ::instance() methods is the same for each class :

static B& B::instance()
{
  static B instance_;
  if (!instance_.loaded_)
  {
    instance_.load();
    instance_.loaded_=true;
  }
  return instance_;
}

static C& C::instance()
{
  static C instance_;
  if (!instance_.loaded_)
  {
    instance_.load();
    instance_.loaded_=true;
  }
  return instance_;
}

I would like to factorize this ::instance method, but given that it uses the virtual method ::load, i cannot define it in the class A.
Theoretically, i know it’s weird since the class A should have 0 instance and B,C should have 1 instance but it also makes sense that this code should be factorized.

How would you solve that problem ?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-23T20:22:15+00:00Added an answer on May 23, 2026 at 8:22 pm

    You could make instance() a free function template:

    template<class T>
    T& instance()
    {
      static T instance_;
      if (!instance_.loaded_)
      {
        instance_.load();
        instance_.loaded_=true;
      }
      return instance_;
    }
    

    Then you can use it like this:

    instance<B>().do_stuff()
    
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