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Home/ Questions/Q 6682095
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 26, 20262026-05-26T04:39:57+00:00 2026-05-26T04:39:57+00:00

I have: for (var i=0;i<2;i++) { dbo.transaction( function(myTrans) { myTrans.executeSql( ‘UPDATE myTable SET myField=0

  • 0

I have:

for (var i=0;i<2;i++) {
    dbo.transaction(
        function(myTrans) {
            myTrans.executeSql(
                'UPDATE myTable SET myField=0 WHERE myID=?'
                ,[i]
            )
        }
    )
}

Because the function is a callback, it is being called with i=2.
Q: How do I call it with i=0 and i=1?

Note: I think that’s what is happening. I think I’ve stated the problem correctly (that it’s caused because the callback executes after the loop is finished).

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-26T04:39:58+00:00Added an answer on May 26, 2026 at 4:39 am

    You’re probably right about what the bug is. The solution to this is to wrap an anonymous function around the inside of the loop, which holds a new and unchanging i variable for the enclosed code to see.

    for (var i=0;i<2;i++) {
        (function(i) {
            dbo.transaction(
                function(myTrans) {
                    myTrans.executeSql(
                        'UPDATE myTable SET myField=0 WHERE myID=?'
                        ,[i]
                    );
                }
            );
        })(i);
    }
    

    ECMAScript Harmony (the proposal for the next version of JavaScript) includes a new keyword, let, which will make a bit cleaner. It will work like this:

    for (var i=0;i<2;i++) {
        let (i = i) {
            dbo.transaction(
                function(myTrans) {
                    myTrans.executeSql(
                        'UPDATE myTable SET myField=0 WHERE myID=?'
                        ,[i]
                    );
                }
            );
        }
    }
    

    It might even be possible to just replace var i with let i, but as far as I know consensus hasn’t yet been reached on this point.

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