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Home/ Questions/Q 7631849
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 31, 20262026-05-31T06:27:44+00:00 2026-05-31T06:27:44+00:00

I have one clarification, class Foo { } main() { Foo obj; //1 method(obj);

  • 0

I have one clarification,

class Foo
{

}

main()   
{
   Foo obj; //1
   method(obj);
   method1(&obj);

   Foo* obj1;
   method2(&obj1);  //4

}

void method(Foo objfoo) //2
{

}

void method1(Foo* objfoo) //3
{

}

void method2(Foo* & objfoo){}

Q1. Will it allocates objects inside main stack frame ?

Q2. Will it create one more copy of Foo inside method stack frame ?

Q3. Will it point same object exists in obj present in main method ?

Q4. What this indicates ? need explanation ?

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-31T06:27:46+00:00Added an answer on May 31, 2026 at 6:27 am

    These are ordered by the Q1, Q2, etc., not the order they appear in the question.

    1. Yes. (at least to the extent that there is a stack frame, or a stack).
    2. Yes, at least in theory (in reality, the compiler may elide the copy though).
    3. Yes, method1 receives a pointer to a pre-existing object.
    4. It’s passing the address of obj1 to method2.

    Aside: the call to method2 mentioned in Q4 won’t actually work. Since obj1 is defined as a pointer to a Foo, and method2 takes a reference to a pointer to a Foo, you would not need to (explicitly) take the address of the point to make the call. Doing so creates a pointer to a pointer, where method2 needs a reference to a pointer. Using method2(obj1); would be at least syntactically correct (open to question whether it will really work correctly though).

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