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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 18, 20262026-05-18T01:04:24+00:00 2026-05-18T01:04:24+00:00

I have one small question about the pumping lemma for regular languages – is

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I have one small question about the pumping lemma for regular languages – is it good enough to show that if a specific string belonging to a language L can’t be pumped, then the language is irregular? For example – if I choose language L1 being of the form a^nb^n (ab, aabb, aaabbb …) and I show that the string aabb can’t be pumped and still be a part of L1, then is it valid for me to immediately conclude that L1 is irregular?

Cheers.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-18T01:04:25+00:00Added an answer on May 18, 2026 at 1:04 am

    It’s not quite sufficient to demonstrate that a single, finite-length string does not pump. For a rigorous argument, you’d also have to prove that length of your example string is greater than the pumping length of the language. Usually you assume that some pumping length
    p exists, then construct a string longer than p that cannot be pumped.

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