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Home/ Questions/Q 863507
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 15, 20262026-05-15T09:19:21+00:00 2026-05-15T09:19:21+00:00

I have Server A (www.example.com) sending information to Server B. I can only have

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I have Server A (www.example.com) sending information to Server B. I can only have HTML / JS on Server A (and have to do the “crunching” on Server B) so I’m trying to send form data via AJAX (trying to avoid a form post to Server B – don’t ask).

Obviously doing an AJAX call cross-domain is considered XSS and a big no-no, but if I were to put Server B in a subdomain (sub.example.com), would that be considered okay? How are cross-domain errors detected? Does the browser look up DNS records? IP address?

Thanks in advance for you help.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-15T09:19:22+00:00Added an answer on May 15, 2026 at 9:19 am

    Sub-domains are considered different and will fail the Same Origin Policy unless both sub-domains declare the same document.domain DOM property (and even then, different browsers behave differently).

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