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Home/ Questions/Q 6053893
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 23, 20262026-05-23T08:05:29+00:00 2026-05-23T08:05:29+00:00

I have the following model: class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user, :readonly => true

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I have the following model:

class Question < ActiveRecord::Base

  belongs_to :user, :readonly => true

end

I would expect that the :readonly => true attribute would prevent the user from being changed i.e.

# assume we've set up user_1, user_2 and question 
# and that question.user == user_1

question.user = user_2
question.save
question.reload 
question.user == user_2 # true - why?

Why is this true – I expected that :readonly=> true would prevent this attribute from being changed after initial creation? If it doesn’t then what does the :readonly option actually do?

EDIT

Using attr_readonly will give the non-changeability (immutability?) that I was looking for.

class Question < ActiveRecord::Base

  belongs_to :user
  attr_readonly :user_id

end

The only problem with it is that it never raises an exception when you try to change the attribute so it’s easy to get bugs out of silent fails.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-23T08:05:30+00:00Added an answer on May 23, 2026 at 8:05 am

    From the doc,

    :readonly
        If true, the associated object is readonly through the association.
    

    So I suppose that prevents you from doing things such as

    question.user.name = 'Hacked'
    

    But let you continue to modify the relation itself.

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