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Home/ Questions/Q 5970863
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 22, 20262026-05-22T20:26:08+00:00 2026-05-22T20:26:08+00:00

I have two functions: f(n) = 2; g(n) = 10 ^ 100; I have

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I have two functions:

  • f(n) = 2;
  • g(n) = 10 ^ 100;

I have to justify if f(n) = BigTheta(g(n)) or not.

My guess is that f(n) is BigTheta(g(n)), since both functions are constants (wich means the functions are proportional), but a my teacher insists that I am wrong.

Am I right? Is there any way I could rest my case?
Sorry if this sounds like a noob question! Thanks.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-22T20:26:09+00:00Added an answer on May 22, 2026 at 8:26 pm
    f(n) <= g(n) * 1
    2    <= 10^100     for all n >= 0
    

    Thus f(n) = O(g(n)).

    f(n) >= g(n) * 2/(10^100)
    2    >= 10^100 * 2/(10^100) = 2      for all n >= 0
    

    And so f(n) = Ω(g(n)).

    Both f(n)=O(g(n)) and f(n)=Ω(g(n)) imply f(n) = Θ(g(n)). Yes, you are right.

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