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Home/ Questions/Q 7091051
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 28, 20262026-05-28T08:08:02+00:00 2026-05-28T08:08:02+00:00

I know that OCIE0A=0001 in binary, so would (1<<OCIE0A) just be 0010? I see

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I know that OCIE0A=0001 in binary, so would (1<<OCIE0A) just be 0010? I see this being used quite frequently, what is the reason for setting a register to (1<<OCIE0A) and not just setting it to 0010 directly?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-28T08:08:03+00:00Added an answer on May 28, 2026 at 8:08 am

    Judging from the results of a Google search, it appears* to be the name for the bit that controls “Timer/Counter Output Compare Match A Interrupt”* in the “Timer/Counter Interrupt Mask Register”* of a “8 bit AVR Microcontroller”* Its usage is as follows*:

    TIMSK0 |= _BV(OCIE0A);  // enable compare A interrupts 
    TIMSK0 &= ~_BV(OCIE0A); // disable compare A interrupts 
    

    Where TIMSK0 is* the Timer Interrupt Mask Register*. OCIE0A is an identifier that (to someone familiar with AVR code*) is more immediately understandable* than TIMSK0 |= 2*.

    They using bit identifiers instead of masks since any halfwit compiler can optimize them to the same thing for bit->mask, but going from mask->bit is harder*. So by leaving it as the bitid, it’s easy and fast for all usages*.

    On an unrelated note, numbers are values stored as binary in the computer. “Decimal” and “Hex” are representations of those values. So no, OCIE0A is not “hex”. It is a symbol that represents the bit offset of a flag, with the value of 1.

    *assumptions everywhere, I know nothing

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