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Home/ Questions/Q 6109053
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 23, 20262026-05-23T14:21:44+00:00 2026-05-23T14:21:44+00:00

I noticed in the HTTP spec (section 5.1.2) that a HTTP request to a

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I noticed in the HTTP spec (section 5.1.2) that a HTTP request to a HTTP proxy uses an absolute URI:

GET http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1968887/uribuilder-and-in-uri HTTP/1.1

while a non-proxied request uses a relative URI:

GET /relative_path.html HTTP/1.1

In either case, a “Host:” header is also specified. Since the “Host:” header already specifies the target of the request, why is the absolute URI required for the HTTP proxy? The spec says something about avoiding request loops, but I’m not at all certain that has anything to do with my question.

I’ve checked in a network monitor and verified that at least on my system, requests do behave as described above.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-23T14:21:44+00:00Added an answer on May 23, 2026 at 2:21 pm

    I suspect because the “Host” header only appeared in HTTP 1.1 (I think). Prior to that, the path was all there was. This wasn’t enough for the proxy, so the host had to be added to the body for it to work.

    It’s sort-of redundant with HTTP 1.1, I suppose, but it’s there for backward compatibility now.

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