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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 12, 20262026-05-12T10:30:47+00:00 2026-05-12T10:30:47+00:00

I ran across a comment that made me wonder: If you use a sharding

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I ran across a comment that made me wonder: If you use a sharding approach to db scalability, does that mean the database is denormalized? Can you have a normalized, sharded database?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-12T10:30:48+00:00Added an answer on May 12, 2026 at 10:30 am

    The are not mutually exclusive. Both are often used when scaling massive datasets, but one doesn’t really have much to do with the other. You can absolutely have a sharded, normalized database…or a denormalized, nonsharded database.

    In sharding, you’re just taking a given schema (normalized or not) and distributing it across a number of physical/logical data stores. This allows, for example, you to have all your users with a particular characteristic (e.g., last name in ‘A-D’) to live on a given database instance. Note that HOW you shard your database is a crucial decision and will be highly implementation dependent.

    Denormalization, on the other hand, can be done with or without a sharded database and is intended to simply queries by reducing the joins/subqueries needed to answer a particular question. Of course, then you would typically programmatically maintain data integrity.

    Some good reading:

    Sharding theory & practice

    Some highly-scalable database implementations ‘in the wild’

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