I recently went through a video which said that in the relation x->W<-Y, X does not influence y.X has causal relationship to W and W has evidential relationship to Y .So will X not affect Y ?
Share
Sign Up to our social questions and Answers Engine to ask questions, answer people’s questions, and connect with other people.
Login to our social questions & Answers Engine to ask questions answer people’s questions & connect with other people.
Lost your password? Please enter your email address. You will receive a link and will create a new password via email.
Please briefly explain why you feel this question should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this answer should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this user should be reported.
Let’s let W represent “The Lawn is Wet,” X represent “It rained recently,” and Y represent “The automatic sprinklers were on recently.”
Clearly, X influences W: If it rained recently, it is likely that the lawn is wet.
Clearly, Y influences W: If the sprinklers were on recently, it is likely that the lawn is wet.
Clearly, knowing W, we can make inferences about X and Y.
But, does X directly influence Y?
Put differently, does the fact of recent rain (or not) influence whether the automatic sprinklers were on recently?
No. If we know nothing about the state of the lawn, because we didn’t look outside, the chance of recent rain is independent of the chance of recent sprinkler activity.
Once we look outside, though, and determine the state of the lawn, then we can draw inferences between rain and sprinkler activity.