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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 19, 20262026-05-19T02:44:32+00:00 2026-05-19T02:44:32+00:00

I was brushing up (not homework)on some computation-theory and came accross this problem: How

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I was brushing up (not homework)on some computation-theory and came accross this problem:

How can you prove that the set of regular languages is a proper subset of the set of the context-free languages.

Now I know a language is regular iff it is accepted by a finite automaton.

And I know a language is context-free iff it is accepted by a pushdown
automaton.

But I’m not sure of what solution is.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-19T02:44:33+00:00Added an answer on May 19, 2026 at 2:44 am

    Any DFA is equivalent to a PDA which happens to never push anything onto its stack, therefore all regular languages are also context-free. More formally:

    A DFA is defined as a 5-tuple (Σ,S,s0,δ,F) consisting of the input alphabet, set of states,
    start state, transition table, and set of final (accepting) states.

    A PDA is defined as a 7-tuple, including all the elements of a DFA, plus two additional parameters: Γ (the stack alphabet), and Z (the initial stack symbol). A PDA transition table is somewhat different from a DFA transition table: each transition can depend on
    both the input symbol and current stack symbol, and the transitions may push or pop
    from the stack.

    So by introducing a dummy stack alphabet consisting of a single symbol, it’s trivial (though somewhat annoying and long-winded to write out!) to map the DFA transition table
    (state, input) -> state to an equivalent PDA transition table (state, input, stack) -> (state, stack).

    To complete the proof of a proper subset relationship: there exist languages which are context-free, but not regular, so the regular languages form a proper subset of the context-free languages. Example: the language of strings consisting of balanced parentheses.

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