Question

I was just wondering if this was proper.

Is it possible to execute javascript code that has been return from an Ajax call?

ser = $('#new_customer_ input').serialize();

$.ajax({
type: 'POST',
url: "ajax/newCustomer.php",
data: ser,
success: function(data)
    {
        $('div#result').html(data);
    }
});

Suppose the php file returns something like this:

<script>$('input#customer_name').val('something');</script>

which would be executed upon response.

This works, although my question is: is this correct or should I be doing something else?

Answer 1

You can use

eval('js_code');

for that. But make sure about the code in the string is from a very reliable source, (may be from your on web service).

The way you are doing it is correct. And better not use eval