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Home/ Questions/Q 8703293
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 13, 20262026-06-13T02:50:38+00:00 2026-06-13T02:50:38+00:00

I was reading JS manual, and found nice trick, that ~val === (val !=

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I was reading JS manual, and found nice trick, that ~val === (val != -1).
I found it nice, and want to use it in my C code.

Is it portable? I checked on my GNU/Linux box, it work.

EDIT: Seems I asked not too clearly. Of course, I know, there is no === in C.
Question is, are both conditionals

int val;
if (~val) {...}
if (val != -1) {...} 

equal?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-13T02:50:39+00:00Added an answer on June 13, 2026 at 2:50 am

    The following answer was written for the question as it was originally phrased, which led myself and others to think that he was asking whether ~ans and (ans ^ -1) are equivalent.

    This trick is not as portable as ~val because it assumes that -1 == 0b111111111..., which is true only on a two’s complement machine (granted, that holds for virtually any machine today). It exploits the fact that the xor operation works as a “controlled inverter”, flipping each bit in its left operand for which the corresponding right operand bit is one.

    However, substituting ~0 for -1 might work.

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