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Home/ Questions/Q 375075
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 12, 20262026-05-12T14:28:03+00:00 2026-05-12T14:28:03+00:00

If I write long i = 1; instead of long i = 1l; ,

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If I write “long i = 1;” instead of “long i = 1l;“, will the 1 be recognized as int and then implicitly converted to long?

Edit: Thank you all. I see there’s no type conversion. Is this also the case with the suffix u (like 10u)? Then what’s the use of those l and u?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-12T14:28:03+00:00Added an answer on May 12, 2026 at 2:28 pm

    The compiler will see what you are trying to assign and set the value to 1 immediately. There is no type conversion that happens with a literal. Even if you said long x = 1.0, you won’t see a runtime type conversion.

    By the way, on Windows, long and int are the same so there wouldn’t be a type conversion anyway.

    [Edit: made last comment specific to Windows; removed reference to preprocessor]

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