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Asked: May 11, 20262026-05-11T08:27:33+00:00 2026-05-11T08:27:33+00:00

I’m using two SQL Server, one is SQL Server 2000 and the other one

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I’m using two SQL Server, one is SQL Server 2000 and the other one is SQL Server 2005.

When the table1 in SQL Server 2000 gets updated/inserted/deleted, I have to update another table in SQL Server 2005. Is it possible to achieve that in a trigger? If not, what would be the possible options?

Thank you, have a nice day!

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  1. 2026-05-11T08:27:34+00:00Added an answer on May 11, 2026 at 8:27 am

    If you’re wanting to replicate the data, not just set something differently, you should look at SQL Replication as it’ll manage things a lot better. eg it will do the updates asynchronously.

    If you have to do them synchronously, or you just decide it’s simpler or you need the whole operation wrapped as a single transaction, I’d put the logic in a procedure for cleanliness. You can create a linked server from 2000 to 2005 and refer to the table from there as SERVER.DATABASE.SCHEMA.TABLE. Alternatively you could execute a stored procedure on the remote server to do the insert/update/delete.

    If you don’t want SQL replication you might instead consider writing the insert/update/deletes from 2000 into a separate table within the same database, via the trigger. Then have a separate job that writes these changes to 2005 then removes them from the table. This would mean you could batch up the changes, mean updates to the original table would be done quicker, would deal better with lost connectivity between the two servers. However, you have less guarantee that the updates would actually be applied to the 2005 server, and you have the added complexity of a sql job that must be run. So it’s a tradeoff. And once you start writing and maintaining this sort of logic you realise that’s why MS wrote replication stuff, so you don’t have to.

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