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Home/ Questions/Q 627601
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 13, 20262026-05-13T19:32:46+00:00 2026-05-13T19:32:46+00:00

I’m working on an old web application my company uses to create surveys. I

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I’m working on an old web application my company uses to create surveys. I looked at the database schema through the mysql command prompt and thought the tables looked pretty solid. Though I’m not a DB guru I’m well versed in the theory behind it (having taken a few database design courses in my software engineering program).

That being said, I dumped the create statements into an SQL file and imported them in MySQL Workbench and saw that they make no use of any “actual” foreign keys. They’ll store another table’s primary key like you would with a FK but they don’t declare it as one.

So seeing how their DB is designed the way I would through what I know (minus the FK issue) I’m left wondering that maybe there’s a reason behind it. Is this a case of lazy programming or could you get some performance gains by doing all the error check programmatically?

In case you’d like an example they basically have Surveys and a survey has a series of Questions. A question is part of a survey so it holds it’s PK in a column. That’s pretty much it but they use it everywhere.

I’d appreciate any insight 🙂 (I understand that this question might not have a right/wrong answer but I’m looking more for some information on why they would do this as this system has been pretty solid ever since we started using it so I’m led to believe that these guys knew what they were doing)

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-13T19:32:47+00:00Added an answer on May 13, 2026 at 7:32 pm

    The original developers might have opted to use MyISAM or any other storage engine that does not support foreign key constraints.

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