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Home/ Questions/Q 3974114
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 20, 20262026-05-20T04:31:49+00:00 2026-05-20T04:31:49+00:00

I’m writing a proxy server. When I use curl to fetch a page, say

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I’m writing a proxy server. When I use curl to fetch a page, say http://www.foo.com/pants, curl makes the following request:

GET /pants HTTP/1.1

When I have curl send that request through my local proxy, curl changes the GET request to:

GET http://www.foo.com/pants HTTP/1.1

This change causes the foo.com server return a 404. Is foo.com broken? Or is the fully qualified domain name only meaningful to proxy servers? Should I always strip http://domain from the requests I send out?

Thanks!

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-20T04:31:49+00:00Added an answer on May 20, 2026 at 4:31 am

    Quoting from rfc 2616, section 5.1.2 “Request-URI”, emphasis by me:

    The absoluteURI form is REQUIRED when the request is being made to a proxy. The proxy is requested to forward the request or service it from a valid cache, and return the response. Note that the proxy MAY forward the request on to another proxy or directly to the server specified by the absoluteURI. In order to avoid request loops, a proxy MUST be able to recognize all of its server names, including any aliases, local variations, and the numeric IP address. An example Request-Line would be:

    GET http://www.w3.org/pub/WWW/TheProject.html HTTP/1.1
    

    To allow for transition to absoluteURIs in all requests in future versions of HTTP, all HTTP/1.1 servers MUST accept the absoluteURI form in requests, even though HTTP/1.1 clients will only generate them in requests to proxies.

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