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Home/ Questions/Q 910481
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 15, 20262026-05-15T17:03:05+00:00 2026-05-15T17:03:05+00:00

In a derived class If I redefine/overload a function name from a Base class,

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In a derived class If I redefine/overload a function name from a Base class,
then those overloaded functions are not accessable/visible to derived class.
Why is this??

If we don’t overload the oveloaded function from the base class in derived class
then all the overloaded versions of that function are available to derived class
objects, why is this??
what is the reason behind this. If you explain this in compiler and linker level
that will be more helpful to me. is it not possible to support this kind of scinario??

Edited  
For examble:

class B  
{  

  public: 
     int f() {}
     int f(string s) {}
};

class D : public B
{
   public:
    int f(int) {}
};

int main()
{
   D d;
   d.f(1);
   //d.f(string);  //hidden for D
} 

Now object 'd' can't access f() and f(string).
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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-15T17:03:07+00:00Added an answer on May 15, 2026 at 5:03 pm

    TTBOMK this doesn’t have a real technical reason, it’s just that Stroustrup, when creating the language, considered this to be the better default. (In this it’s similar to the rule that rvalues do not implicitly bind to non-const references.)

    You can easily work around it be explicitly bringing base class versions into the derived class’ scope:

    class base {
    public:
      void f(int);
      void g(int);
    };
    
    class derived : public base {
    public:
      using base::f;
      void f(float);
      void g(float); // hides base::g
    };
    

    or by calling the explicitly:

    derived d;
    d.base::g(42); // explicitly call base class version
    
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