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Home/ Questions/Q 6094973
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 23, 20262026-05-23T12:45:43+00:00 2026-05-23T12:45:43+00:00

In my domain, I have 2 bounded contexts that are relevant to this question:

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In my domain, I have 2 bounded contexts that are relevant to this question:

  1. Purchasing – where the customer orders services
  2. Fulfillment – where services are assigned to vendors to be completed

It’s a requirement that an order is editable by the customer at any given time throughout the life of the order.

If a customer removes a service from an order (i.e. within the purchasing context), if that service has already been assigned to a vendor to be performed (but has not already been performed) that service must also be removed in the fulfillment context.

There’s a couple of options here, and I’d like the community’s opinion:

  1. I have my contexts wrong because this will create a cross-context transaction.
  2. I may not need transactional consistency here. Of course, that’s for the business stakeholder to decide, which begs 2 questions: What are the implementation options? How do I pose this question to the business stakeholder?
  3. This is an acceptable violation of the “no cross-context transactions” rule.

EDIT

This is all happening within a single process, so the likelihood of mid-transaction failure is very low.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-23T12:45:43+00:00Added an answer on May 23, 2026 at 12:45 pm

    Here’s the question to ask your stakeholder, re: an order being editable at all times – what does it mean for an order to be edited after it has already been fulfilled?

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