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Home/ Questions/Q 6747763
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 26, 20262026-05-26T12:28:58+00:00 2026-05-26T12:28:58+00:00

In the following code: class Base { void funcA(); void funcB(); . . };

  • 0

In the following code:

class Base
{
   void funcA();
   void funcB();
   .
   .
};

class Derv : public Base
{
   int m_state;
   void funcA(){ m_state = 1; Base::funcA(); }
   void funcB(){ m_state = 4; Base::funcB(); }
   .
   .
};

Derv a;
a.funcA();

Will Base::funcA() be a separate function call(Derv::FuncA() -> Base:FuncA()), or the code will be inlined?
if it is compiler dependent, does the compilers (e.x GCC) is smart enough to inline it?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-26T12:28:59+00:00Added an answer on May 26, 2026 at 12:28 pm

    It depends on implementation of Base::funcA() and Base::funcB().
    If the compiler can then the compiler will inline it.
    Most of the Modern day compilers(including gcc) are smart enough to do that.

    The C++ standard allows a compiler to perform any optimization As long as the resulting executable exhibits the same observable behaviour as if all the requirements of the standard have been fulfilled.

    This is known as the As-If Rule.

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