Sign Up

Sign Up to our social questions and Answers Engine to ask questions, answer people’s questions, and connect with other people.

Have an account? Sign In

Have an account? Sign In Now

Sign In

Login to our social questions & Answers Engine to ask questions answer people’s questions & connect with other people.

Sign Up Here

Forgot Password?

Don't have account, Sign Up Here

Forgot Password

Lost your password? Please enter your email address. You will receive a link and will create a new password via email.

Have an account? Sign In Now

You must login to ask a question.

Forgot Password?

Need An Account, Sign Up Here

Please briefly explain why you feel this question should be reported.

Please briefly explain why you feel this answer should be reported.

Please briefly explain why you feel this user should be reported.

Sign InSign Up

The Archive Base

The Archive Base Logo The Archive Base Logo

The Archive Base Navigation

  • SEARCH
  • Home
  • About Us
  • Blog
  • Contact Us
Search
Ask A Question

Mobile menu

Close
Ask a Question
  • Home
  • Add group
  • Groups page
  • Feed
  • User Profile
  • Communities
  • Questions
    • New Questions
    • Trending Questions
    • Must read Questions
    • Hot Questions
  • Polls
  • Tags
  • Badges
  • Buy Points
  • Users
  • Help
  • Buy Theme
  • SEARCH
Home/ Questions/Q 145395
In Process

The Archive Base Latest Questions

Editorial Team
  • 0
Editorial Team
Asked: May 11, 20262026-05-11T08:24:58+00:00 2026-05-11T08:24:58+00:00

Is it OK to pass to function a reference to the value of map

  • 0

Is it OK to pass to function a reference to the value of map element, and to modify it there?

foo(string & s) {     s = 'xyz'; }  map<int, string> m; m[1] = 'abc'; foo(m[1]); // <-- Is it ok? Will m[1] be 'xyz' after this call? 

Thank you.

  • 1 1 Answer
  • 0 Views
  • 0 Followers
  • 0
Share
  • Facebook
  • Report

Leave an answer
Cancel reply

You must login to add an answer.

Forgot Password?

Need An Account, Sign Up Here

1 Answer

  • Voted
  • Oldest
  • Recent
  • Random
  1. 2026-05-11T08:24:58+00:00Added an answer on May 11, 2026 at 8:24 am

    The answer is Yes.

    (operator [] returns a reference)

    • 0
    • Reply
    • Share
      Share
      • Share on Facebook
      • Share on Twitter
      • Share on LinkedIn
      • Share on WhatsApp
      • Report

Sidebar

Related Questions

How can I pass a string value by reference in javascript. I want this
Consider the following function template: template<typename T> void Foo(T) { // ... } Pass-by-value
I know there's the option to pass a value by reference, simply by writing
If I pass by value as an argument to a particular function, then will
foo(int &bar) { bar = 5; } The call to this function would be
Should I always pass a std::string by const reference to a function if all
Is it possible to pass a reference to a function to another function in
I have class Foo(): function bar(): pass function foobar(): pass Rather than executing each
When i started learning function in C++ its all around pass by value and
Assuming it's possible, how would one pass arguments by reference to a variadic function

Explore

  • Home
  • Add group
  • Groups page
  • Communities
  • Questions
    • New Questions
    • Trending Questions
    • Must read Questions
    • Hot Questions
  • Polls
  • Tags
  • Badges
  • Users
  • Help
  • SEARCH

Footer

© 2021 The Archive Base. All Rights Reserved
With Love by The Archive Base

Insert/edit link

Enter the destination URL

Or link to existing content

    No search term specified. Showing recent items. Search or use up and down arrow keys to select an item.