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Home/ Questions/Q 250033
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 11, 20262026-05-11T21:28:37+00:00 2026-05-11T21:28:37+00:00

Is there any magic hanging around anywhere that could mean that (object0 == object1)

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Is there any magic hanging around anywhere that could mean that

(object0 == object1) != (object0.equals(object1))

where object0 and object1 are both of a certain type which hasn’t overridden Object.equals()?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-11T21:28:38+00:00Added an answer on May 11, 2026 at 9:28 pm

    No. That’s exactly the definition of Object.equals().

    …this method returns true if and only if x and y refer to the same object (x == y has the value true) …

    public boolean equals( Object o ) { 
       return this == o;
    }
    
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