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Home/ Questions/Q 819295
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 15, 20262026-05-15T02:17:05+00:00 2026-05-15T02:17:05+00:00

It sounds silly, but I can’t get it. Why can the expression [] ==

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It sounds silly, but I can’t get it. Why can the expression [] == [] be typed at all? More specifically, which type (in class Eq) is inferred to the type of list elements?

In a ghci session, I see the following:

Prelude> :t (==[])
(==[]) :: (Eq [a]) => [a] -> Bool

But the constraint Eq [a] implies Eq a also, as is shown here:

Prelude> (==[]) ([]::[IO ()])

<interactive>:1:1:
No instance for (Eq (IO ()))
  arising from use of `==' at <interactive>:1:1-2
Probable fix: add an instance declaration for (Eq (IO ()))
In the definition of `it': it = (== []) ([] :: [IO ()])

Thus, in []==[], the type checker must assume that the list element is some type a that is in class Eq. But which one? The type of [] is just [a], and this is certainly more general than Eq a => [a].

IMHO this should by ambiguous, at least in Haskell 98 (which is what we are talking about)

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-15T02:17:06+00:00Added an answer on May 15, 2026 at 2:17 am

    GHCi has extended rules for type defaulting, which is what tripped you up. In this case, I believe it would default the ambiguous type to (). The subtle ways that GHCi behaves differently are nice for the sake of better interactivity, but they do occasionally result in confusion…

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