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Home/ Questions/Q 8607085
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 12, 20262026-06-12T03:15:32+00:00 2026-06-12T03:15:32+00:00

Let’s say I have the following two class definitions (only the access specifier for

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Let’s say I have the following two class definitions (only the access specifier for bar() is different, everything else is the same):

class MyClass {
public:
    void foo();
    void bar();   // bar() is public

private:
    int member;
};

and

class MyClass {
public:
    void foo();

private:
    void bar();   // bar() is private
    int member;
};

Does a compiler consider the classes to be “different” in terms of what code the compiler produces? (Or in other words: Does the compiler treat it differently apart from access permission checking?)

This is the same question as: Can the following code cause any trouble like undefined behavior? (Provided that it is compiled in different units, with or without X being defined, and linked together afterwards.)

class MyClass {
public:
    void foo();

#ifdef X
private:
#endif
    void bar();

private:
    int member;
};

I’m interested in a compiler-independent answer as well as in a GCC-specific one (as this is my primary target compiler).

This becomes interesting if we want to “simulate” things like package private from the Java world in C++ by defining a specific macro within the “package”.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-12T03:15:33+00:00Added an answer on June 12, 2026 at 3:15 am

    It’s definitely undefined behaviour to violate the one-definition rule, which requires that all definitions of the same class type be identical.

    Note that the memory layout of a class is only specified within each access level, so changing access levels can very realistically lead to a different memory layout of the class.

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