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Home/ Questions/Q 6610173
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 25, 20262026-05-25T19:48:22+00:00 2026-05-25T19:48:22+00:00

Lets say we have the following two class definitions. #include <iostream> #include <array> class

  • 0

Lets say we have the following two class definitions.

#include <iostream>
#include <array>

class A
{
public:
  virtual void f() = 0;
};

class B : public A
{
public:
  virtual void f() { std::cout << i << std::endl; }
  int i;
};

Here sizeof(B) == 8, presumably 4 the virtual pointer and 4 for the int.

Now lets say we make an array of B, like so:

std::array<B, 10> x;

Now we get sizeof(x) == 80.

If my understanding is correct, all method calls on elements of x are resolved statically, as we know the type at compile time. Unless we do something like A* p = &x[i] I don’t see a need to even store the virtual pointer.

Is there a way to create an object of type B without a virtual pointer if you know it is not going to be used?

i.e. a template type nonvirtual<T> which does not contain a virtual pointer, and cannot be pointed to by a subtype of T?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-25T19:48:23+00:00Added an answer on May 25, 2026 at 7:48 pm

    Is there a way to create an object of type B without a virtual pointer if you know it is not going to be used?

    No. Objects are what they are. A virtual object is virtual, always.

    After all, you could do this:

    A *a = &x[2];
    a->f();
    

    That is perfectly legitimate and legal code. And C++ has to allow it. The type B is virtual, and it has a certain size. You can’t make a type be a different type based on where it is used.

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