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Home/ Questions/Q 6729433
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 26, 20262026-05-26T10:17:22+00:00 2026-05-26T10:17:22+00:00

Line 4140 of jQuery 1.7rc1: while ( (elem = elem.previousSibling) && elem.nodeType !== 1

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Line 4140 of jQuery 1.7rc1:

while ( (elem = elem.previousSibling) && elem.nodeType !== 1 ) {}

This is weird to my eyes. Is it equivalent to

while( elem && elem.nodeType !== 1 ) elem = elem.previousSibling;?

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-26T10:17:22+00:00Added an answer on May 26, 2026 at 10:17 am

    No, it is not equivalent to what you have. The original code:

    while ( (elem = elem.previousSibling) && elem.nodeType !== 1 ) {}
    

    is equivalent to this:

    while (elem.previousSibling && elem.previousSibling.nodeType !== 1) {
        elem = elem.previousSibling;
        // other code here
    }
    

    Logically, it says to loop while there is a previousSibling and while the previousSibling's nodeType !== 1 and assign elem to that previousSibling.

    The assignment in the original while condition is a shortcut that saves a separate assignment and saves an extra reference level in the nodeType check.

    Breaking down the while loop even more, it’s the same as this:

    while (elem.previousSibling) {
        elem = elem.previousSibling;
        if (elem.nodeType !== 1) {
            break;
        }
        // other code here
    }
    

    This part:

    (elem = elem.previousSibling)
    

    assigns elem.previousSibling to elem and then evaluates whether elem is truthy or not.

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