Ran across some code that used this, which led me to wonder.
if(condition) foo = bar();
condition && (foo = bar());
Are these two segments of code equal to a compiler? If not, in what ways would they differ?
Sign Up to our social questions and Answers Engine to ask questions, answer people’s questions, and connect with other people.
Login to our social questions & Answers Engine to ask questions answer people’s questions & connect with other people.
Lost your password? Please enter your email address. You will receive a link and will create a new password via email.
Please briefly explain why you feel this question should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this answer should be reported.
Please briefly explain why you feel this user should be reported.
Unless
&&is overloaded for the combination of types ofconditionandfoothey will have identical behavior – the latter will work this way:that’s usual short-circuiting – if the first component of
&&isfalsethe second is not evaluated.IMO the second variant is much less readable.