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Home/ Questions/Q 7623623
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 31, 20262026-05-31T04:45:12+00:00 2026-05-31T04:45:12+00:00

Sample code references table from a different database then the current on. use DB1

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Sample code references table from a different database then the current on.

use DB1
select * from SomeTableInDB1
select * from DB2..SomeTableInDB2

QUESTION : Can the name of the other database (“DB2”) be soft-coded somehow?

something like this ( I know this will not work but maybe it makes my question clearer)

use DB1
varchar @OtherDB
set @OtherDB = "DB2"
select * from SomeTableInDB1
select * from @OtherDB..SomeTableInDB2
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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-31T04:45:13+00:00Added an answer on May 31, 2026 at 4:45 am

    You could also use a synonym, which I find is a little cleaner than a view (the view shouldn’t have SELECT * but will also need to be maintained as the underlying table changes).

    USE DB1;
    GO
    CREATE SYNONYM dbo.SomeTableInDB2 FOR DB2.dbo.SomeTableInDB2;
    

    This is effectively just a redirect – indexes from the base table are still used the same way etc. So now in DB1 you can say:

    SELECT * FROM dbo.SomeTableInDB2;
    

    …without hard-coding the database.

    For more information see CREATE SYNONYM (MSDN).

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