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Home/ Questions/Q 386859
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 12, 20262026-05-12T15:37:01+00:00 2026-05-12T15:37:01+00:00

Say you have a customer object and the customer file form that manipulates that

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Say you have a customer object and the “customer file” form that manipulates that object. Is the following a correct interpretation of MVC?

Customer - Model
CustomerForm.cs - Controller
CustomerForm.desinger.cs - View

Even though CustomerForm.cs and CustomerForm.designer.cs are partials of the same class, it seems to makes sense from what I know about MVC, that

1) the view and the controller are often, if not always, tightly coupled

2) the view sets how everything ‘looks’ (ie. usercontrol properties)

3) the UI behaviour is done in the controller (shown via event handlers and any manual data binding)

4) the domain logic should exist in the model (I’m assuming that Customer.cs implements things like IDataErrorInfo, INotifyPropertyChanged etc.)

I ask because I see one or two disconnects: When using databinding via the designer, I would expect something like that to happen in CustomerForm.cs, and listening/responding to INotifyPropertChanged events as well. But generally, is this accurate?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-12T15:37:02+00:00Added an answer on May 12, 2026 at 3:37 pm

    Yes, you have the gist of it. Views and controllers aren’t necessarily strongly coupled, as you can have a view that is rendered by several different controllers and vice-versa as well as partial views. MVC does not do data binding in the sense of webforms, so it is best to have your object get the data it needs either by itself or using an ORM like nHibernate with the repository design pattern.

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