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Home/ Questions/Q 6208029
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 24, 20262026-05-24T05:44:16+00:00 2026-05-24T05:44:16+00:00

So for example, I have an array containing 52 shuffled integers between 0 and

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So for example, I have an array containing 52 shuffled integers between 0 and 52 – no repeated values.

How can I encode this array according to an algorithm such that it can be represented as less numbers, and then decode and again to reproduce the original values?

I was thinking I could create a big binary String and group grouping of 0’s or 1’s together as characters, and expand on that. Would that be the way to go? Thanks

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-24T05:44:17+00:00Added an answer on May 24, 2026 at 5:44 am

    There are 52! (that’s fifty two factorial) different arrays like you describe. By the way they are called permutations. A single number between 0 and 52! uniquely represents such a permutation. You need 226 bits to store such a number. Eight 32-bit integers would do just as well.

    You can read about mapping numbers to permutations and back here.

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