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Home/ Questions/Q 6815159
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 26, 20262026-05-26T20:46:26+00:00 2026-05-26T20:46:26+00:00

This follows this question which was solved using this answer . Long story short:

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This follows this question which was solved using this answer.

Long story short: I have Table1 on which I update some random rows. Table1 and Table2 share one column (it’s a foreign key). I want to update some columns from Table2, based on what was updated in Table1, but I am not sore how to let Table2 know what rows where modified in Table1.

Is there any approach without creating a temporary table? Like passing the modified rows from Table1 to Table2, check in Table2 for the rows matching the foreign keys of the ones which were modified and from here update these rows in Table2.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-26T20:46:26+00:00Added an answer on May 26, 2026 at 8:46 pm

    You can use a table variable instead. Just replace all instances of IDS with @IDS and declare the table variable like this.

    DECLARE @IDS TABLE (id int not null, secondid int)
    
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