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Home/ Questions/Q 811265
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 15, 20262026-05-15T01:01:05+00:00 2026-05-15T01:01:05+00:00

This is a follow up to my previous question . Consider that I write

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This is a follow up to my previous question.

Consider that I write a function with the following prototype:

int a_function(Foo val);

Where foo is believed to be a type defined unsigned int. This is unfortunately not verifiable for lack of documentation.

So, someone comes along and uses a_function, but calls it with an unsigned int as an argument.

Here the story takes a turn. Foo turns out to actually be a class, which can take an unsigned int as a single argument of unsigned int in an explicit constructor.

Is it a standard and reliable behavior for the compiler to render the function call by doing a type conversion on the argument. I.e. is the compiler supposed to recognize the mismatch and insert the constructor? Or should I get a compile time error reporting the type mismatch.

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-15T01:01:05+00:00Added an answer on May 15, 2026 at 1:01 am

    In case when Foo has a constructor for unsigned int implicit conversion will take place unless Foo is not declared explicit.

    The first case:

    class Foo { public: Foo(unsigned int) {} };
    // ...
    a_function( 1 ); // OK
    

    Second case:

    class Foo { public: explicit Foo(unsigned int) {} };
    // ..
    a_function( 1 ); // error
    

    According to C++ Standard only one user-defined implicit conversion is allowed.

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