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Asked: May 11, 20262026-05-11T05:02:50+00:00 2026-05-11T05:02:50+00:00

This is my first stackoverflow question, so try to be nice. ;-D My issue

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This is my first stackoverflow question, so try to be nice. ;-D

My issue is this, I am refactoring some existing javascript code and using jQuery to do it. In several places I’ve come across javascript code similar to the following:

// some js code working with the customAttribute value javascriptElementObject.customAttribue = void(0); 

The javascriptElementObject is now a jQuery object and I have been attempting to use the following code to do the same thing:

// some js code working with the customAttribute value javascriptElementObject.attr('customAttribute', void(0)); 

However, this does not seem to be doing anything. The following code works however:

javascriptElementObject.get(0).customAttribute = void(0); 

I’m aware of jQuery’s removeAttr() function, but have not used it so far because I don’t know if it’s equivalent to setting the attribute value to void(0).

So I guess that really means I have 2 questions:

  1. Why doesn’t the first jQuery version work?
  2. Are .get(0).customAttribue = void(0); and .removeAttr(‘customAttribute); equivalent?

Thanks.

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  1. 2026-05-11T05:02:50+00:00Added an answer on May 11, 2026 at 5:02 am

    jQuery likes to overload its methods so:

    obj.attr( name ) //retrieves the attribute value obj.attr( name, value ) //sets the attribute  obj.attr( name, void(0) ) == obj.attr( name, null ) == obj.attr( name ) //i.e retrieving the attribute 

    You might want to try the following if you want to set an empty attribute

    obj.attr( name, '' ) 

    This will also apply to other methods jQuery.html() for example

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