UTF-8 single byte characters map perfectly to Latin-1 (ISO 8859-1) characters (those below the character code of 128); basicly the default ASCII characters.
If I have a UTF-8 encoded string and pass it to a function, that expects a Latin-1 string is there any possibility that the Latin-1 function misinterprets parts of UTF-8 mutlibyte characters as ASCII characters?
I imagine something like this could happen:
(imagniray) UTF-8 multibyte character: 0xA330
(mis-)interpreted by Latin-1 function as two Latin-1 characters: 0xA3 0x30
The first of those characters does not lie within the ASCII set, but the second is the ASCII code for the 0 character. Is it possible that an multibyte UTF-8 character produces an artifact that looks like a single-byte UTF-8 / ASCII character like in the example above?
From my understanding of UTF-8 only single-byte characters contain any bytes with the most significant bit unset, so basicly multibyte characters never contain a byte that could be misinterpreted by a Latin-1 function as a valid ASCII character (because all those characters have the most significant bit unset). But I want to make sure this is true and I don’t screw up on this, because this may have security implications when dealing with data sanitization – which I am apparently currently doing.
You are correct in your understanding that only single byte characters contain any bytes with the most significant bit unset. There is a nice table showing this at: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UTF-8#Description